LBO · MOIC · IRR Solver
Enter the deal. The solver returns the equity check, the exit equity to the sponsor, MOIC, IRR, and decomposes the value created across three sources: EBITDA growth, multiple expansion, and debt paydown.
How the math works
Entry: EV = Entry EBITDA × Entry multiple. Equity check = EV − Debt + fees.
Hold: EBITDA grows at the specified CAGR. FCF = EBITDA × cash-conv − interest. All FCF sweeps debt. Debt cannot go below zero.
Exit: Exit EV = Exit EBITDA × Exit multiple. Sponsor exit equity = Exit EV − Net debt at exit, less management rollover.
Bridge: EBITDA growth = (ΔEBITDA × entry mult). Multiple expansion = (Δmult × exit EBITDA). Debt paydown = (entry debt − exit debt). Residual is rounding/interaction.
Hold: EBITDA grows at the specified CAGR. FCF = EBITDA × cash-conv − interest. All FCF sweeps debt. Debt cannot go below zero.
Exit: Exit EV = Exit EBITDA × Exit multiple. Sponsor exit equity = Exit EV − Net debt at exit, less management rollover.
Bridge: EBITDA growth = (ΔEBITDA × entry mult). Multiple expansion = (Δmult × exit EBITDA). Debt paydown = (entry debt − exit debt). Residual is rounding/interaction.
What a senior would ask next
- What part of EBITDA growth is volume vs. price vs. margin?
- If you assume exit at the entry multiple, does the deal still clear the hurdle?
- What's the IRR if the cash-conversion is 10 points lower? (the COVID + supply-chain reality test)
- If interest rates move 200bps, what happens to debt paydown by year 3?
- Who's the buyer at exit, and at what size do they hit FTC review?
Capability drill
Try these without the solver first. Reach for it only to check.
A 5x EV/EBITDA acquisition with 3x debt, 10% EBITDA growth, 5-year hold, exit at 6x — rough MOIC?
~3.0x. Entry equity = 2x EBITDA. Exit EBITDA ≈ 1.61x entry. Exit EV ≈ 1.61 × 6 = 9.66x. Less debt of ~1x (after paydown) gives equity ≈ 8.7x EBITDA. 8.7 ÷ 2 ≈ 4.4x — but interest and incomplete paydown trim it. Plug it into the solver.
A deal MOICs 2.5x in 4 years. What's the rough IRR?
~26%. Rule of thumb: IRR ≈ MOIC^(1/years) − 1. 2.5^(1/4) − 1 = 0.257.
If your bridge says 65% of the value comes from multiple expansion, what should the IC question be?
"What is the structural reason a strategic / sponsor would pay more than we did, on the same earnings, in five years?" If the answer is "rates" or "the comps will recover," it's a market call disguised as a thesis.